Talk:Golden Rule
I personally prefer "Do unto others, before they do unto you."Eye
See You 04:06, 6 August 2007 (CDT)
I always though the golden rule was "whoever has the gold, makes the rules" argh, where are the tildes on an iPad... Sorry, noob here :(
[edit] Better in negative form?
Doesn't it wil be more effective in a negative form, eg.:"Do not do unto others what you would not be done unto you". So I don't kill because I don't want to be killed, but if I wanted to be killed then the rule wouln't be saying that I should kill others.
- Well, you must also consider that others might not consent to being killed, even though the hypothetical you wants to be killed. So "do unto others as you would have done unto yourself" would imply that you should inflict consented death upon others as you would want them to inflict consented death unto you. As others decline consent, you should be respecting that. Nullahnung (talk) 14:29, 8 September 2013 (UTC)
[edit] Utilitarianism
Strictly speaking Utilitarianism is a form of collectivism especially in the original formulation of the "greatest good for the greatest number." The Golden Rule is individualistic in the sense that it puts for universality: rules and principles should be applied equally to every individual. Thus, deontology and utilitarianism, while being rival ethical approaches, aren't two competing view on the Golden Rule. The original comparison, libertarianism vs. egalitarianism, is indeed two approaches to universality and therefore two contrasting view on how the Golden Rule is implemented in society. Instead of the silly textbook examples about projecting one's tastes as a guide for universality (style, cuisine, of other minor matters) I thought a more substantial contrast that is real and important might show how the Golden Rule isn't enough. JasonP (talk) 21:03, 8 September 2013 (UTC)
- For those of us who aren't acquainted with this libertarianism/egalitarianism conflict, could you explain how they provide two contrasting views on the Golden Rule? Cheers. Nullahnung (talk) 03:11, 9 September 2013 (UTC)
- "Individualistic in the sense that it puts for universality: rules and principles should be applied equally to every individual" How is that exactly libertarian? Are you talking about the rule of law or economics, specifically? Osaka Sun (talk) 03:19, 9 September 2013 (UTC)
Libertarian and egalitarian dispositions are two tendencies to apply moral principles universally, i.e. obey the Golden rule. The libertarian disposition focuses on process. It’s best to give examples. Everyone should be free to engage in trade; everyone can try to sell the product of his labor; everyone can speak and express themselves; 15 minutes of fame, etc. Freedom to act is seen as a “live and let live” implementation of the Golden Rule. The egalitarian disposition notes that “liberty to act” doesn’t yield equal results. Inequity is seen as a violation of the Golden rule. Everyone should have equal housing, healthcare, working hours, healthy diets, etc. Egalitarian distribution insures a “don’t want what your neighbor can’t have” type of Golden rule.
Both advocate consistent application of moral rules across society. Neither exempts themselves from these rules. Neither is a hypocrite. Both sides often see the other as being inconsistent when they fail to understand the differences in approach to rule making. And there is nothing about the universality of moral rule that tells us which disposition is correct. It is often noted that “universality isn’t enough” to yield specific moral principles. JasonP (talk) 12:35, 9 September 2013 (UTC)
- Thanks for your explanations. I would like to see what other people think of this, but personally I think if you want to write out this disparity in the article, you should put an explanation much like what you wrote here just now, to stave off confusion.
- Also, I don't really understand what you are talking about with universality. I would like to note that according to our article (see "In general, many agreements are difficult to reach on what should be universal."), universality of moral rule isn't supposed to indicate correctness of disposition. Quite the other way around. Correctness of disposition is supposed to tell us what moral rule should be universal. Just to clear that up. Nullahnung (talk) 13:29, 9 September 2013 (UTC)