Talk:Bible interpolation

1 Thessalonians 2:15, 16 isn't interpolation
The wrath Paul is alluding to is the fact Jews were being kicked out of major cities shortly after the time of Christ's killing rather than the fall of the temple. If anything, Romans 11 is the interpolation as it contradicts Romans 9 which was definitely written by Paul. And Jews being responsible for Christ's death is from the canonical gospels. All of them.

Letters by "Paul"
Do the letters falsely attributed to Paul count as "interpolation"?--SpecialFFrog (talk) 16:12, 25 June 2015 (UTC)
 * Most of the Bible, old and new testaments, aren't written by the people they're traditionally attributed to (Moses, Apostles, etc). So probably not, as interpolation generally refers to additions after composition. --Annanoon (talk) 09:22, 18 April 2019 (UTC)

Misuse of the word "translation"
This article appears to refer to ancient manuscripts written in the same language as translations, rather than manuscript or text. These are certainly Greek copies, rather than translations being discussed. This is a major concern,because any modern translation of the Bible, is an actual translation from the original language.

Pericope adulterae
is often reckoned an interpolation, possibly from a now-lost or non-canonical gospel. --Annanoon (talk) 16:42, 17 April 2019 (UTC)
 * Also the entry Lord's Prayer gives a clearer account of the power and glory interpolation at the end of the prayer, which is mentioned here but not contextualised as a Protestant and Orthodox interpolation. --Annanoon (talk) 16:57, 17 April 2019 (UTC)

Only begotten son
What about the 'Sons of God' variously mentioned in the Old Testament? Did God 'reproduce' by sprouting off ribs (so 'explaining' the creation of Eve) and Jesus is the only son by 'human reproduction'? Anna Livia (talk) 21:06, 17 October 2020 (UTC)