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presentism is obviously not a fallacy when using history to develop an argument for policy. assuming this presents one basis for which anyone whom claims to have knowledge based on research (especially in the sociological and to a lesser extent psychological sciences) is allowed to exercise its power (by making a policy), then because those who "discover" the knowledge perform the research in some context with historical dependencies (like technology, prevailing ethical considerations, etc.), isn't this a form of presentism bias? (and therefore fallacious?) it may be under the purview of political philosophy or political science, but only because it hasn't reached some subjective threshold as history, no? — Unsigned, by: / talk / contribs 20:05, 1 November 2014 (UTC)