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User talk:LeRajah

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You don't see the sexism in saying "owner's wife" rather than "female owner"? --Eira OMTG! The Goat be Praised. 08:23, 27 May 2011 (UTC)

I apologise if I have offended you, I meant no harm. In fact, I preferred "female owner", but the change was reverted. Though the case could be argued that she was not his owner since in Egypt, as with many other ancient civilisations, woman were barred from ownership, thus saying "female owner" is historically inaccurate, but I wouldn't mind foregoing that trivia in the spirit of equality. LeRajah (talk) 08:32, 27 May 2011 (UTC)
I understand the point of historicity, but really, the technicality that women didn't own property was not de facto consistent. The women operated as owners as much as the men, they just didn't own them by technicality. --Eira OMTG! The Goat be Praised. 08:38, 27 May 2011 (UTC)
You are quite correct,wherein lies the danger of generalising about history, or anything for that matter, but from the narrative found in Genesis this would not seem to be the case since she had to have her husband dispose of Joseph rather than simply doing it herself. LeRajah (talk) 08:44, 27 May 2011 (UTC)